Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 08:41
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Gucci Owner Picks Auto Executive for One of Global Luxury’s Top Jobs - WSJ
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What do you think about wearing sheer pantyhose?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.